Cheers all!
I have a concern about this. Perhaps I'm not getting something?
The link below explains how a inter-openSRS transfer is done.
http://www.opensrs.org/Support_FAQ.shtml#Live_reseller_domain_move
It says the customer sends the fax. We need to charge them? The only thing
I can see is that they have to send our username. They won't be able to get
it till they ask us. Thus we can charge them. But once they have the
username they can then proceed to transfer many names without being charged.
(Granted we are notified of the request as well.) Thus the customer should
never get ahold of our username. Not to mention the request and
confirmation email that is sent to the admin contact and the reseller spells
it out.
At first I though I (the reseller) was to confirm it, but the message was
addressed to the customer, ( I was only carboned copied) and
the customer did reply, and the transfer went through.
An example of the request email:
To: customer@mail.com
Cc: quickdomain-admin@axxent.ca
Subject: OpenSRS Admin: domain-name.com
Hello,
A faxed request has been made to move this domain to a different
reseller:username.
From:customer@acme-inc.com
To:quickdomain-admin@axxent.ca
Please reply to confirm this transfer.
Thanks.
And an example after the customer confirms:
To: customer@mail.com
Cc: quickdomain-admin@axxent.ca
Hi!
The domain has been transferred to new reseller:username.
Thanks.
So how does this work exactly? Should I be concerned?
Thanks for any help anyone can give?
Fabio
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.3 : Tue Oct 19 2004 - 23:36:19 EDT